I find _Jesus himself_ to set up oracular claims.

I find an assumption of pre-eminence and unapproachable moral wisdom to pervade every discourse from end to end of the gospels.

If I may not believe that Jesus assumed an oracular manner, I do not know what moral peculiarity in him I am permitted to believe.

I do not _demand_ (as my friend seems to think) that _he shall be_ oracular, but in common with all Christendom, I open my eyes and see that _he is_; and until I had read my friend's review of my book, I never understood (I suppose through my own prepossessions) that he holds Jesus _not_ to have assumed the oracular style.
If I cut out from the four gospels this peculiarity, I must cut out, not only the claim of Messiahship, which my friend admits to have been made, but nearly every moral discourse and every controversy: and _why_?
except in order to make good a predetermined belief that Jesus was morally perfect.

What reason can be given me for not believing that Jesus declared: "If any one deny ME before men, _him will I deny_ before my Father and his angels ?" or any of the other texts which couple the favour of God with a submission to such pretensions of Jesus?
I can find no reason whatever for doubting that he preached HIMSELF to his disciples, though in the three first gospels he is rather timid of doing this to the Pharisees and to the nation at large.