And how did that happen?
Could it have happened last year, with the Austrians at Bologna, and ready (at a sign) to precipitate themselves into Tuscany?
Could it have happened previous to the French intervention?
And could it happen _now_ if France used the power she has in Italy _against_ Italy?
Why is it that the _Times_ newspaper, which declared ...

first that the elections were to be prevented by France, and next that they were to be tampered with ...

is not justified before our eyes?
I appeal to your sober judgment ...

if indeed the Emperor Napoleon _desires the restoration of the Dukes!!_ Is he not all the more admirable for being loyal and holding his hand off while he has fifty thousand men ready to 'protect' us all and prevent the exercise of the people's sovereignty?
And he a despot (so called) and accustomed to carry out his desires.

Instead of which Tuscans and Romagnoli, Parma and Modena, have had every opportunity allowed them to combine, carry their elections, and express their full minds in assemblies, till the case becomes so complicated and strengthened that her enemies for the most part despair.
"The qualities shown by the Italians--the calm, the dignity, the intelligence, the constancy ...